Homesteader Posted September 13, 2007 Share Posted September 13, 2007 First of all ... welcome HennyPenny. It's nice to chat with folks that take genealogy seriously. My question is for anyone. I've just run into an ancestral family who are using a lot of 'private' in lieu of birth dates and marriage dates. I can understand a few out-of-wedlock secrets but this appears different. Would you give me some reasons why these dates would remain 'private', long after they're dead? Link to comment
Snowmom Posted September 14, 2007 Share Posted September 14, 2007 That is a puzzle, usually it is just those who are alive who have the 'private' by them. So, I really have no idea why it would be that way. Link to comment
rootdiggr Posted September 14, 2007 Share Posted September 14, 2007 How long would you estimate that these people may have been dead? The person submitting the tree may have chosen to mark anybody born after a certain date as private. Or the database in which the tree is found may have certain standards as far as dates. I believe that some programs assume any person without a death date is living, and mark those persons "private" or "living". Your best bet is probably to get in contact with the submitter to see if you can get more info. Link to comment
Homesteader Posted September 22, 2007 Author Share Posted September 22, 2007 Sorry rootdiggr, was entertaining this week with out of town couple. When I went back to look at the dates, most of them would have died in the late 1990's or early 2000's (unless they lived to be over 100 y.o.) Me thinks the 'private' wasn't removed even though these people have died. I know I get into genealogy in spurts and then lay it down. I will contact the submitter and see if I can dig up some more bones. Thanks for your help. Link to comment
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